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In this series many controversial issues, such as: Can God be found? Do humans have free will? When was the Holy Ghost given? Does God ever lie? Does God love everyone?

 

176. How long did the flood last?
The flood lasted 40 days. (Genesis 7:17)
Right. The word ‘mabul’ (flood) is used here for the forty days of heavy rain and the rising of the water.

The flood lasted 150 days. (Genesis 7:24, 8:3)
Right. The word ‘mabul’ (flood) is used here in a broader sense: the covering of the earth by water from the beginning to the end. (Genesis 10:32) “…and out of these the nations were separated on the earth after the flood.”  The two meanings of the word ‘mabul’ (flood) are fully acceptable.
No Contradiction

 

177. Did everyone (except Noah and his family) die in the flood?
Yes, everything died except for those on the ark. (Genesis 7:21-23)
Right. Of course many animals living in water also could survive.

No, some survived. (Genesis 6:4, Numbers 13:33)
Wrong. The critic suggests that the giants of which is spoken in Numbers 13:33 belong to the same family of the giants of Genesis 6:4. There is no evidence in the entire Bible for this assumption. So the contradiction is based on an assumption of the critic, nothing more. Certainly we have to do with a variation of extremely great people, that could develop under circumstances before and after the flood but which do not extend anymore.
No Contradiction

 

178. Will the righteous flourish?
The righteous will flourish. (Psalm 92:12)
Right.

The righteous will perish. (Isaiah 57:1)
Wrong. It is not said that the righteous will not flourish, but that they live in a period that their death is not mourned: “The righteous man perishes, and no man takes it to heart; And devout men are taken away, while no one understands. For the righteous man is taken away from evil …” Here is spoken about righteous men who end their flourishing lives harmless; the point is that a society not mourning about them shows its true nature: not being interested in righteousness at all. That is not promising-looking for a nation. "It is a sign that God intends war when He calls home his ambassadors." (Matthew Henry)
No Contradiction

 

179. Which flying creeping things may we eat?
All are unclean and may not be eaten. (Deuteronomy 14:19)
Right. “all flying creeping things” were forbidden in the Jewish lifestyle.

Some may be eaten. (Leviticus 11:21-23)
Wrong. All flying creeping things are forbidden. The flying creeping and jumping things were not forbidden: locusts. The critic didn’t realize that there is not the classification “flying creeping things”, with a subclass “locusts”. Leviticus is speaking of two coordinated classes.
No Contradiction

 

180. Is it OK to call someone a fool?
It’s OK to call someone a fool. (Psalm 14:1, 53:1, Proverbs 28:26, Matthew 23:17,19, Luke 11:40, 24:25, Romans 1:21-22, 1 Corinthians 15:36, Galatians 3:1)
Wrong. It is not OK. In all the referred cases there is spoken in a general way. E.g. “The fool has said in his heart, ‘There is no God.’” We don’t see here a personal accusation, neither in any other of the referred texts.

It’s not OK to call someone a fool. (Matthew 5:22)
Right. “…and whoever says, ‘You fool,’ shall be guilty enough to go into the fiery hell.”
It is forbidden to directly speak to someone “Fool”, or ‘You fool!”.
Read the article.
No Contradiction

 

181. Is it good to be foolish?
It is good to be foolish. (1 Corinthians 1:21, 3:18, 4:10)
Wrong. Here is spoken not spoken about foolishness in general, but about the foolishness of the Gospel for the world. That is Christ died and is risen from the dead for us. It is seen as foolishness. E.g. “Stupid that God died.” And: “Why did he die, if he arose three days later?” And if so: “How does it affect me?” The world doesn’t know how God’s grace can work even today through these acts and so the world sees them as foolishness. However where people see it at work, it will always compel admiration and respect.

It is not good to be foolish. (Psalm 5:5, Ephesians 5:15)
Right. Christianity brings wisdom and rejects foolishness. Where Christianity doesn’t bring wisdom it is self-contradictory and ready for extinction.
No Contradiction

 

182. Who forces non-believers to disbelieve?
God (John 12:40, 2 Thessalonians 2:11-12)
Wrong. God doesn’t bring disbelief which is the result that people don’t believe in God. That is not said here. But people that have already rejected him are hit by God with “spiritual blindness” or “strong delusion”.
Remark. God is not actually doing so to punish them severely. No, people are now without God, wandering in darkness through the Fall of Mankind. The lack of God’s existence in someone’s life brings misfortune and unhappiness.

Satan (2 Corinthians 4:3-4)
Wrong. Even Satan doesn’t force people to disbelieve. There is only one who is responsible for not believing, that is the not-believing individual. Here also Satan has his share in the misfortune of non-believers “the god of this world (Satan) has blinded the minds of them”.
Remark. “Spiritual blindness” is not the same as “blindness of mind”. Spiritual blindness stands for the inability to fully experience spiritual things. Blindness of mind is related to the inability to explore fully one’s intellectual capacities, often due to egocentrism.
No Contradiction

 

183. How many Philistine foreskins did David buy his first wife with?
100 (2 Samuel 3:14)
Wrong. The number of 100 was Saul’s proposal that David accepted.

200 (1 Samuel 18:27)
Right. The number of 200 was the actual number David brought to Saul.
No Contradiction

 

184. Does God forgive sins?
Yes (2 Chronicles 7:14)
Right. This verse makes clear: if people turn to God and seek forgiveness, they will be forgiven.

No (Joshua 24:19)
Wrong. The critic forgot to quote also the next verse that makes everything clear. “If you forsake the LORD and serve foreign gods, then He will turn and do you harm and consume you after He has done good to you.” (Joshua 24:20) Indeed when people turn from God they don’t ask for forgiveness.
No Contradiction

 

185. How many generations from Jesus to Abraham?
42 (Matthew 1:17)
Wrong. The number 42 is not mentioned in the text of Matthew, but the critic has added three series of 14 generations: (1) from Abraham to David, (2) from David to until the carrying away to Babylon, (3) from the carrying away to Babylon unto Christ. But by doing so he has added David twice (one too many).

41 (Matthew 1:2-16)
Right. All the names from Abraham to and including Jesus are 41.
No Contradiction

 

186. Can God be found?
God will be found by those who seek Him. (Proverbs 2:3-5,  8:17,  Matthew 7:8, Luke 11:9-10.)
Right. When they seek with all their heart.

God will not be found by those who seek Him. (Psalm 18: 41, Proverbs 1:28, Lamentations 3:8, 3:44, Luke 13:24)
Wrong. God will not be found by those who seek with a divided heart. E.g. by asking things that God can’t do or give, as it is against his Word; or  unwillingly to accept Jesus as Lord and Savior. In general: “He who turns away his ear from listening to the law, even his prayer is an abomination.” (Proverb 28:9)
The occasions of Lamentations (3:8, 44) refer to the depressive mind of the prophet who feel helpless as if he is without God, but then he reminds: The LORD’s loving kindnesses indeed never cease, for His compassions never fail. They are new every morning; Great is Your faithfulness.” (3:22-23) Significant is his reference that ‘they are new every morning’, as the morning seems a difficult moment for the depressed mind, the transition from night to daytime is easier to overcome by seeking the Lord in prayer.
No Contradiction  

 

187. From what were the fowls created?
From waters (Genesis 1:20-21)
Wrong. The KJV has: “Let the waters bring forth abundantly the moving creature that have life, …” The modern (and more accurate)  translation is: “Let the waters teem with swarms of living creatures, …” (NASB) The Hebrew has here: ‘sjaraz’ (swarm, teem) and not ‘barah’ (create, Genesis 1:1), nor’ jaza’ (bring forth Genesis 1:24).

From the ground (Genesis 2:19)
Right. “Out of the ground the LORD God formed every beast of the field and every bird of the sky, …”
No Contradiction

 

188. Do humans have free will?
Remark. All theologians accept that man has a free will in many matters, but in several matters there is no free will. I am free to choose my style in clothing, or whether I go by train or by car. Every human being is submitted to a universal moral law and often we don’t obey to that. The question is not only “Do Humans have free will?” (The answer is “Yes”). But a question equally important is: “Are Humans always able to use their free will properly?” (The answer is “No, they are not!” through sin.)

Yes (Deuteronomy 30:19, Joshua 24:15)
Partly right. “…I have set before you life and death, the blessing and the curse. So choose life in order that you may live, …” (Deuteronomy 30:19) Apparently there is a free will. But by hearing the words of God the listener is brought in a position of grace and by that he is able to choose for life. God’s word gives the listener the power to use his free will properly.

No (Jeremiah 10:23 and many references)
Partly right. All the quoted texts refer to special aspects of the above painted picture of the free will that is limited by the moral law, e.g.:
Jeremiah 10:23: “Nor is it in a man who walks to direct his steps.”  Jeremiah refers to practical limitations reducing human possibilities. But God is able to open ways that are closed.  
Acts 13:48, Romans 8:29-30, 9:11-22, Ephesians 1:4-5, 2 Timothy 1:9. These texts are particularly connected with what is called the doctrine of predestination and they require a special discussion. See the article.
No Contradiction

 

189. Were the disciples frightened or gladdened when they saw Jesus?
They were frightened when they saw him. (Luke 24:37)
Right. At first they were frightened when they didn’t recognise him.

They were gladdened. (John 20:20)
Right. Later when they had recognised him, they were glad.
No Contradiction

 

190. Does God ever get furious?
God never gets furious. (Isaiah 27:4)
Wrong. God can become furious when he sees unrighteousness. However being furious is not God’s character, it is not God’s nature – so to say – as Isaiah said about him: “Fury is not in me.”

God is often (always?) furious. (Isaiah 34:2, Jeremiah 21:5, 30:23, Micah 5:15, Nahum 1:2, Zechariah 8:2)
Wrong. All the instances refer to all sorts of unrighteousness and God’s furious reaction on them. And that’s logical. What if a government wouldn’t react on transgressions of the laws of the State? That would be unacceptable. This is true all the more if God’s unwritten moral law in every human being becomes subject of transgression, how will He react? He will certainly stand against the transgressors.
No Contradiction

 

191. Who gave the law to Moses?
God (Exodus 19:20, 20:22)
Right.

Angels (Galatians 3:19)
Partially Right. Angels are God’s servants. And by them Moses received the tables of stone (first time) and later on it was angels who wrote the Commandments in the new tablets that had been brought up by Moses. When someone receives a postal parcel, he receives it from the sender, but the postman delivers it in the hands of the receiver. Here God is the sender, angels are as postmen.
No Contradiction

 

192. Did God give Gehazi leprosy?
Yes (2 Kings 5:27)
Wrong. '“ Therefore, the leprosy of Naaman shall cling to you and to your descendants forever.” So he went out from his presence a leper as white as snow.' God doesn’t give people illness, the Lord announces this illness. Illness is part of the Fall of mankind and as such a product of the evil one. It is also said that Gehazi’s children will have to take care of their father as long as he lives. 

No (2 Kings 8:4)
Wrong. 'Now the king was talking with Gehazi, the servant of the man of God, saying, “Please relate to me all the great things that Elisha has done.”' Circa three chapters after the story of Gehazi’s leprosy he had a conversation with the king, apparently in his palace. This was not possible for a leper. So Gehazi didn’t seem to have leprosy later on. The point is that this is an additional story when the good relationship between Elisha and the king had come to an end.
See the article.
No Contradiction

 

193. How many generations were there from David to Jesus?
27 (Matthew 1:6-16)
Here is given a lineage of Joseph from David onwards via Solomon: 27 generations.

42 (Luke 3:23-31)
The critic is convinced that Luke gives here a lineage of Jesus from David to Joseph. That is strange as Luke describes how Mary got pregnant through the word of God, through the Holy Spirit, and not through a man. It is clear from Luke's earlier chapters that Joseph was not the father of Jesus. Moreover it is strange that Luke would give a lineage of Joseph who was the supposed father of Jesus (Luke 3:23).
The larger figure of generations in Luke 3 than in the lineage of Joseph (Matthew 1) is not a real problem. In the turbulent history from David to Mary, about 1000 years, a lot of things happened. In the lineage of Mary, not via Solomon but via Nathan, nobody was ever a claimant to the throne, contrary to the lineage of Joseph (Matthew) where 14 kings are mentioned. In the lineage of Mary poor descendants of David are given especialy after the Exile. Enough to understand that the figures 12 and 42 generations have realistic explanations.
See also SAB 194 (following).
No Contradiction

 

194. Genealogy of Jesus (Matthew 1 versus Luke 3)
The critic has printed two lists side by side. The list of Matthew doesn’t cause many problems, it is the lineage from Joseph to David. Many theologians have given as their opinion that Luke gives Mary’s lineage from her back to David (M. Luther, J.A. Bengel, J.B. Lightfoot, C. Wieseler, F. Godet, B. Weiss, A.T. Robertson, N. Geldenhuys, J. Wenham, J. McDowell, a.o.).

David to Jesus (Matthew 1:6-16)
Right. Joseph’s lineage, who was the non-biological father of Jesus.

David to Jesus (Luke 3:3:21-31)
Right. Mary’s lineage.
We read NASB: “23 When He began His ministry, Jesus Himself was about thirty years of age, being, as was supposed, the son of Joseph, the son of Eli, 24 the son of Matthat, the son of Levi, etc.”
Punctuation marks are missing in old Greek texts, so we can make it more clear as follows: “23 When He began His ministry, Jesus Himself was about thirty years of age, being – as was supposed, the son of Joseph – the son of Eli, 24 the son of Matthat, the son of Levi, etc.” So Jesus is said to be the son of Heli, and not of Joseph! The only male person named Heli could be Mary’s father. And Jesus could be named a son of Heli, according to the rule: The son of a son/daughter is a son. The use of the dashes (- … -) is necessary here to clarify the logical order in Luke’s report concerning the biological forefathers of Jesus. The logical order is that Luke certainly was not presenting a long list of Jesus’ forefathers via someone (Joseph) who was supposed to be his father. All the more as Luke new very well that Joseph was not Jesus' biological father (Luke 1:31-35).
One may criticize now: from verse 24 onwards "the son of" means "the biological son of" and that is in contradiction with "the son of Eli" (23) meaning "the grandson of Eli". The answer is loud and clear: NO, this was acceptable if from the context a non-bilological son-relation was meant, which is the case here (also e.g. Jesus the Son of David). 
See also SAB 193 (former), and the article: What about Jesus’ genealogy according to Matthew compared with Chronicles? And: Was Joseph the father of Jesus?
No Contradiction

 

195. When was the Holy Ghost given?
Remark. The critic has a serious misunderstanding concerning the Spirit in people and on people. Accepting Christ means not only the indwelling of Christ in the human heart but also the Holy Spirit as Jesus was born through the Spirit. Moreover as the Spirit was also on Jesus by his baptism, it true that the Spirit lives in the Christian who has accpeted Christ. Already in Old Testament time the Spirit was in the believers: (Isaiah 63:11, 14). Jesus rebuked Nicodemus that he, as a teacher of Israel, had not the slightest idea about this (John 3:10). Jesus also promised that the Spirit would come upon his disciples after his departure to heaven. That happened with Pentecost and it was an empowering experience for the disciples. Already in Old Testament times the prophets got this experience of the Spirit ‘on, over them’.

After the resurrection of Jesus (John 7:39, 20:22, Acts 2:1-4)
Right. The Spirit came ‘upon’ Jesus’ disciples while he already lived ‘in them’. Compare Jesus being born through the Spirit received the Spirit ‘upon him’ during his baptism in the river Jordan. Here at the outpouring of the Holy Spirit (Pentecost) was a new divine activity of giving the Spirit

Before the resurrection of Jesus (Mark 12:36, Luke 1:15, 41, 67,  2:25  Acts 1:16)
Right. The referred instances are all related to the pre-Christian era in which prophets already experienced the Spirit ‘in them’ and ‘on them’.
No Contradiction

 

196. Does God ever lie?
No, God cannot and does not lie. (Numbers 23:19, 1 Samuel 15:29, 2 Samuel 7:28, Titus 1:2, Hebrews 6:18)
Right.

Yes, God lies by proxy; He sends prophets or lying spirits to deceive. (1 Kings 22:23,  2 Chronicles 18:22,  Jeremiah 4:10, 20:7,  Ezekiel 14:9, 2 Thessalonians 2:11)
Wrong. The quoted instances show aspects of God that the critic does not properly understand.
1 Kings 22:23,  2 Chronicles 18:22 and Ezekiel 14:9. It is said here that there is a lying spirit in the mouth of false prophets, while God had sent them a spirit to mislead them. Well it is God’s way to mislead wicked people through the truth. When he sends a spirit of truth to teach people, the evil doers become uncertain and start to rely on their own evil feelings. Their words reveal their own evil human spirit. The truth of God’s spirit triggers the evil prohets to speak lies.
Jeremiah 4:10. “Then I said, “Ah, Lord GOD! Surely You have utterly deceived this people and Jerusalem, saying, ‘You will have peace’; whereas a sword touches the throat.” Is this a realistic accusation by Jeremiah as the critic seems to suppose? No, it is an exclamation of despair. Figure of speech: hyperbole (exaggeration). The use of it is allowed when in the context the exaggeration is clear from the context, which is the case here. The same in:
Jeremiah 20:7. “O LORD, You have deceived me and I was deceived; You have overcome me and prevailed. I have become a laughingstock all day long; …” (NASB)
– 2 Thessalonians 2:11. “For this reason God will send upon them a deluding influence so that they will believe what is false, …” (NASB) People that have already rejected him are hit by God with “spiritual blindness” or “strong delusion”. God is not actually doing so to severely punish them.  No, wandering without God they live in darkness through the Fall of Man after the first sin. This darkness is the more intense for those who have knowingly rejected the light.
No Contradiction

 

197. Does God love everyone?
Yes, he loves everyone. (John 3:16,  1 John 4:8,16)
Right. “We have come to know and have believed the love which God has for us. God is love, and the one who abides in love abides in God, and God abides in him.”  (NASB 1 John 4:16) The entire Bible speaks of God’s love unto mankind and also about his wrath on evildoers. And as long as his wrath endures there is given for anyone the opportunity of accepting salvation from sin by accepting Jesus Christ. This is the proof that his love is greater than his wrath.

No, he hates some people. (Leviticus 20:23,  Psalm 5:5, 11:5, Proverbs 6:16,19 Hosea 9:15, Malachi 1:3, Romans 9:13)
Wrong. There are three types of problems in the referred instances
Leviticus 20:23 is speaking about the nations that lived in Canaan and about whom God was horrified. In Abraham’s time there lived God-believing peoples, but they had introduced other gods connected with horrible sins which God hated, and so they had become the subject of God’s wrath.  
Read the article: Is God good to all? The same is applicable on the land of Esau, Edom, after ages. (Malachi 1:3)
– Psalm 5:5 “The boastful shall not stand before Your eyes; You hate (better: disdain) all who do iniquity.” Of this nature are also the instances of Proverbs and Hosea. We should not blame but praise a judge (and God) who condemns sin. (Disdain is a second meaning for the Hebrew sana', to hate Koehler-Baumgartner 53.)
– Romans 9:13 ‘Just as it is written, “JACOB I LOVED, BUT ESAU I HATED.”’ This is an instance that stands on its own. Firstly there is a mistranslation: “Esau I hated”, must be “Esau I disparaged (disdained)”. Why this subordination of Esau? A common explanation is that Esau as well as Jacob were prepared to be images of the coming Messiah. The first (Esau) was disparaged, elected to serve like Jesus who said “I came to serve, not to be served.” The second (Jacob) was to be elevated, but he didn’t know that this would be through pain, like the Messiah. Together, Esau and Jacob were appointed to give a complete picture of the coming Messiah. Within this frame of positive selection each of them had the best opportunity to fulfil his life.  
No Contradiction

 

198. Does God know what is in everyone’s heart?
Yes (Acts 1:24, Psalm 44:21, 139:2-3)
Right. “And they prayed and said, “You, Lord, who know the hearts of all men, …” Acts 1:24 And “For the eyes of the LORD move to and fro throughout the earth that He may strongly support those whose heart is completely His.” (2 Chronicles 16:9)

No (Deuteronomy 8:2, 13:3,2 Chronicles 32:31)
Wrong. God knows what is now in a man’s or woman’s heart, but does He know everything what will be in their heart in the future (open theism)? “And the LORD regretted that He had made Saul king over Israel.” (1 Samuel 15:35)

Isn’t this contradicting God’s omniscience? This Christian doctrine is not as strong as it seems. There is only one biblical instance saying that God knows everything: 'Peter was grieved because He said to him the third time, “Do you love Me?” And he said to Him, “Lord, You know all things; You know that I love You.”' (John 21: 17) There is a great  common achievement in theology, i.e. that one has finished to read the Bible as a compilation of dogmas, but to read everything in it’s context, which is here: “… You know all things about me …”. And so it is rather difficult to give biblical evidence to the view that God knows everything about the future. Yes, He knows what is in every human heart at this very moment. And yes, He knows a lot about the future as He knows his plans, however they doesn’t seem to be fixed in everything. “But pray that it may not happen in the winter. For those days will be a time of tribulation …” (Mark 13:18-19) This approach is "Open Theism". However, the foreknowledge of God is a point of concern in current theological debate. It is wise to take it as a Deuteronomy 29:29 issue where is said that there are hidden things we will never know completely.
No Contradiction

 

199. How many Gods are there?
There is only one God. (Many instances)
Right.

There are several gods. (Many instances)
Partial right.
With Capitals.
There are three instances (Genesis 1:26, 3:22, 11:7) where God speaks in the so called majestic plural (pluralis maiestatis) 'Then God said, “Let Us make man in Our image, according to Our likeness, …”' Genesis 1:26. In pluralis maiestatis a speaker refers to him/herself, a grammatical number other than the singular (Wikipedia).
These texts are often explained in Christian sense of God’s trinity: the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit. Also in this explanation there is no suggestion of three Gods, but of one, as they are one in all their spiritual abilities.
– 1 John 5:8 A few late mss add: “For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit, and these three are one.” This is certainly not authentic (from about the eleventh century and only a few manuscripts), it must remain outside the discussion.
– All other instances refer to the gods of the other nations and they are mentioned with small type. As they all stand for powers of nature they have some reality which is not denied in the Hebrew Bible, but they are not real gods and so they don’t have a capital!
No Contradiction

 

200. Are we all God’s children?
Yes, we are all God’s children. (Deuteronomy 14:1, Psalm 82:6, Hosea 1:10, Matthew 5:48, 6:9, John 20:17, Acts 17:29)
Right. But there are found and lost children. In general: Yes, we are all God’s children and created to speak to Him saying “Our Father”. However many lost children don't want to say so. "We are of God’s offspring, …" this was said to Greek non believing hearers of Paul (Acts 17:29, Luke 3:38).

No, only certain people are God’s children. Everyone else is a child of the devil and/or a child of wrath. (Galatians 3:26, Ephesians 1:5, 2:3 John 1:12, Romans 9:8, 8:14, 1 John 3:8-10, John 8:41-44, Acts 13:8-10)
Very wrong. The critic makes severe mistakes and has got himself into a hopeless muddle.

Child of wrath (Ephesians 2:3) is not the same as “a child of the devil”.
All people are destined as sons and daughters of God, but being in the Fall of man they have become lost children or children of wrath, which is the same as children of the Fall. By that they cannot be called anymore children of God according to their authentic high stature.

Child of the devil
This term is restricted to those who attack beleivers being ready to finish a theological discussion with murder and killing. (1 John 3:10, 12 “children of the devil, … like Cain who killed his brother”, John 8:41-44, 59 “your father is the devil, … to stone him”).
See the artlice.
No Contradiction

 

No Bible Contradictions